Review Question - QID 219920

A 31-year-old male presents to the clinic with daily deep, medial knee pain that has been present since he played football in college. He was told in his early 20's that he had a "cartilage problem," with radiographs taken at that time shown in Figure A. He has taken anti-inflammatories and has tried numerous physical therapy sessions, but continues to have pain. Images from his most recent MRI are shown in Figures B and C, and results of his standing alignment films demonstrate a medial proximal tibial angle of 87° and a Mikulicz line that runs 4 mm medial to the lateral tibial spine. The defect shown in the MRI images measures 2.25 cm x 2.75 cm. Which of the following treatment methods shown in Figure D is most appropriate for this patient at this time?