Review Question - QID 219519

An 86-year-old male presents as a polytrauma patient after falling down his stairs at his nursing home. He is found to have a periprosthetic distal femur fracture (Figure A) and a distal radius fracture (Figure B). He undergoes retrograde intramedullary nailing (Figure C) and is told he may be bear all of his weight on his leg. The following day, he undergoes the procedure shown in Figure D. Given this modality of treatment for his wrist, which of the following is the most appropriate regarding his immediate postoperative weight-bearing recommendation?