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Review Question - QID 219498

Pectoralis Major Rupture Treatment Operative QID: 219498 (OBQ23.71)
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QID 219498 (Type "219498" in App Search)
A 42-year-old male weightlifter presents to your clinic with complaints of left shoulder pain after an injury sustained while bench pressing 3 days ago. He states that since the injury, the shoulder has become swollen and ecchymotic. On physical examination, there is a loss of axillary contour and pain/weakness with resisted adduction. His neurovascular status is intact distally. You order an MRI, which confirms your suspected diagnosis and the most common pattern of injury for the injured structure. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
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