Review Question - QID 219479

A 23-year-old male presents after his third patellofemoral dislocation. His knee MRI demonstrates a complete medial patellofemoral ligament (MPFL) disruption and cartilaginous defect along the medial patellar facet. His tibial tuberosity to trochlear groove (TT-TG) distance is 26mm (Figure A). He undergoes a diagnostic arthroscopy demonstrating an MPFL patellar insertion avulsion fracture (Figure B) and a medial facet chondral defect. The superior-medial pole of the patella is unaffected. After performing gentle debridement around the lesion, the contained defect measures 2.2 x 2.1 cm2 with exposed subchondral bone (Figure C). Which of the following serves as the most appropriate management?