Review Question - QID 219476

A 24-year-old male professional football player is tackled from behind and forcibly contacts the ground with his knee in flexion and ankle in plantarflexion. On subsequent examination of the knee, there is a significant effusion, with stable Lachman testing and no tenderness at the proximal tibia. There is 11mm of tibial translation on posterior drawer testing with the knee in neutral rotation, and 7mm of translation with the knee internally rotated. No varus or valgus instability is noted. After advanced imaging is obtained, open-reduction and internal fixation is planned for definitive management. Which of the following images is most consistent with the physical examination and planned surgical treatment?