Review Question - QID 219352

A 34-year-old male presents to your clinic with complaints of pain over the anterolateral aspect of his knee that has developed over the last year. He states he has noticed a mass associated with the pain in this area and has paresthesias that travel into the dorsum of his foot. The mass is palpable and mobile just distal to the anterolateral joint line, and he reports it has gotten progressively larger over the last 6 months. There is no knee joint effusion and his knee ligamentous exam is stable. Radiographs are negative for fracture or calcified masses. A representative axial MRI sequence is shown in Figure A. What is the next best step in management to decrease recurrence?