Review Question - QID 219278

A 25-year-old male presents to your office with left medial sided knee pain. He is a former college football player who is now working as a medical device representative. He complains of mechanical symptoms and he has an MRI that demonstrates an unstable osteochondral lesion. You recommend surgery and are unable to fixate the osteochondral fragment because it is too fragmented. Therefore, you perform a loose body removal as well as a technique where you penetrate the subchondral bone with an awl. Which of the following is true of the procedure performed?