Review Question - QID 219201

A 21-year-old male college football running back is hit in the lower half during a game and is down on the field. He has an obvious deformity to his leg with an open wound. He is taken to the emergency department by ambulance and radiographs there demonstrate a grade II open distal third tibial shaft fracture. He is taken to the operating room urgently for irrigation and debridement and tibial intramedullary nailing. He is recovering well on rounds post-op day one and is discharged after 24 hours. Which of the following is he at the highest risk of developing in the post-operative period?