Review Question - QID 218960

A 38-year-old male presents to your office complaining of increasing left-sided knee pain that has not responded to conservative management with initial radiographs seen in Figure A. He undergoes primary total knee arthroplasty and is doing well three months after surgery (Figure B). He follows up for an annual appointment 2 years later and notices over the past 3 months he has been having increasing difficulty urinating and is starting to feel numbness and tingling in his perineal area. He goes to the emergency department, and an axial CT scan shows an 8x9cm mass in his pelvis extending from the superior ramus shown in Figure C. A biopsy shows a grade 2 chondrosarcoma. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?