Review Question - QID 218952

A 52-year-old male is referred to the clinic by a sports surgeon in the community. The patient was being worked up for a meniscal tear in the left knee and was found to have a concerning mass in his proximal tibia based on MRI findings. He denies having pain specific to the area but has been having popping, clicking, and medial joint line pain for the past year. He does not have a CD of his images, but he does have the radiology report, which describes a “chondroid mass, possible chondrosarcoma” with a single image shown in Figure A. Which of the following is the best next step in management?