Review Question - QID 218657

A 33-year-old male presents after a fall from the back of a truck trailer with the isolated injury shown in Figure A. He is successfully reduced in the emergency department followed by external fixation placement in the operating room. He undergoes multi-ligamentous reconstruction two weeks later with external fixator removal, and the surgeon did not perform neurolysis at that time. He is following up for his three months post-operative appointment and continues to endorse foot drop requiring an ankle-foot orthosis. He states the foot drop has been present since the injury and has not appreciably changed. On physical examination, he has some firing of the tibialis anterior musculature, albeit weak, when prompted. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?