Review Question - QID 218160

A 72-year-old female presents to the clinic failing nonoperative management of left tri-compartmental osteoarthritis. She undergoes an uncomplicated total knee arthroplasty and does well postoperatively (Figures A & B). Three years later, she falls down her stairs at home and undergoes surgery for her distal femur periprosthetic fracture at an outside facility. She returns to your clinic approximately 3 months later complaining of continued pain requiring prolonged narcotic use. She has remained on partial weight-bearing status since her most recent surgery but endorses feelings of knee instability/buckling during physical therapy sessions. The incision appears healed and there is a moderate effusion with a notably limited range of motion. Her most recent radiographs are shown in Figures C & D. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?