Review Question - QID 218125

A 30-year-old man is involved in a motorcycle accident and is thrown over 20 feet. He sustained a purely ligamentous, unilateral scapulothoracic dissociation without vascular injury. His MRI and physical examination are consistent with a left-sided brachial plexus injury, concomitant Horner syndrome, and a flail arm. His only retained voluntary movement is performing a shoulder shrug. His MRI shows left-sided pseudomeningoceles at the roots of C5-T1. After 3 months of recovery from other injuries, he is indicated to undergo staged peripheral nerve transfers. His peripheral nerve surgeon proceeds with performing an intercostal to musculocutaneous nerve transfer. The resident inquires as to why an ulnar double fascicular to musculocutaneous nerve transfer was not performed. Which of the following principles of nerve transfer procedures does the intercostal to musculocutaneous nerve surgical treatment emphasize?