Review Question - QID 218092

An 85-year-old male who recently moved from Puerto Rico presents to the emergency department with the imaging shown in Figure A. He is closed reduced under conscious sedation (Figure B) and follows up in the clinic. He states this is his tenth dislocation since his hip replacement five years ago, of which one of the dislocations required open reduction. He has multiple comorbidities including chronic kidney disease on dialysis, diabetes, and active smoking. CT scan imaging shows approximately 25 degrees of cup anteversion (Figure C), 40 degrees of cup inclination, and radiolucency around the femoral stem. His operative report displays a unique implant company that, despite multiple attempts, is unable to be contacted. His ESR is 12mm/hr (normal: 0-20 mm/hr) and CRP is 0.6mg/dL (normal: 0.8-1.0mg/dL). A precautionary hip aspiration shows a synovial WBC count of 1,100 cells/mL with 76% segmented neutrophils and no growth on cultures. Intraoperatively, the stem is loose, and the acetabular component is well-fixed. Which of the following would be considered the most appropriate next step in management while minimizing potential complications?