Review Question - QID 217992

A 24-year-old active duty female service member presents with longstanding left sided hip pain. She states the pain radiates into her groin in which 6 months of physical therapy failed to provide relief. An intra articular injection did help the pain, but only for a few weeks. Figure A displays her AP pelvis imaging with mild coxa valga with a lateral center edge angle of 15.2°. A separate false profile view displays an anterior center edge angle of 14°. A recent MRI shows a hypertrophied labrum with intrasubstance tearing. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment to provide lasting symptom resolution?