Review Question - QID 217962

A 27-year-old male presents to your office with complaints of anterior hip pain. He is as recreational hockey player and notices the pain more when he skates. He has an irritable hip examination suggesting intra-articular pathology. He has previously seen a different orthopedic surgeon who obtained an MRI and noted a labral tear. The patient was told he would likely need to undergo an arthroscopic labral repair. After hearing this, you review his MRI and order a complete set of hip radiographs. Which of the following would be a contraindication to performing only the aforementioned procedure on this patient?