Review Question - QID 217942

A 31-year-old male presents to your office complaining of years of right anterior groin pain. He explains that he can no longer participate in his daily cross-fit workouts. His pain is localized to the anterior hip and is worsened with flexion, adduction, and internal rotation of the hip. You obtain radiographs and an MRI which identify a CAM deformity of the proximal femur in addition to a labral tear. He explains that he has attempted physical therapy without benefit and did get several weeks of complete relief from an intra-articular steroid injection. Therefore, you schedule him for an arthroscopic labral repair and femoral osteoplasty using the setup seen in Figure A. At his first postoperative appointment, his deep groin pain is improved but he complains of numbness of the right inner thigh and hemi-scrotum. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this complication?