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Review Question - QID 217939

QID 217939 (Type "217939" in App Search)
A 19-year-old male presents to your office after sustaining his 4th anterior shoulder dislocation during a lacrosse game. He previously underwent arthroscopic bankart repair in high school after his 3rd dislocation and had been doing well until this injury. You obtain an MRI which confirms re-tear of his anterior labrum with a Hill-Sachs lesion. There is also concern on the MRI for anterior glenoid bone loss. Therefore, CT scan is obtained and demonstrates 20% bone loss anteriorly. Which of the following is true regarding the this patient's management?