Review Question - QID 217932

A healthy 70-year-old male presents to your office with complaints of increasing groin pain for the past 5 years. He endorses a history of a right total hip arthroplasty that was performed 4 years prior to the onset of this pain. On examination, he has good range of motion with a general discomfort. Laboratory markers for CRP, ESR, and cobalt are mildly elevated. His hip aspiration reveals 1,700 WBC and 60% polymorphonuclear cells (PMNs). Current radiographs are significant for mild osteolysis in the calcar and greater trochanter with well-positioned components. Review of his previous operative report notes a 44-mm cobalt chromium head articulating with a highly cross-linked polyethylene liner. The decision is made to proceed with revision arthroplasty. At the time of revision, the trunnion reveals evidence of only mild damage. Which of the following should be performed at the time of revision surgery?