Review Question - QID 217884

A 67-year-old male undergoes a right-sided primary total knee arthroplasty without any complications. He was doing well for three years when he sustained a forward fall landing on a flexed right knee. He was seen two weeks later by his arthroplasty surgeon with an antalgic gait on presentation. On physical examination, there is ecchymosis overlying the anterior aspect of the knee, unhindered range of motion between 0-115 degrees, appears to be ligamentous intact and the patient could perform a straight leg raise without assistance. Radiographs showed a nondisplaced, transverse patella fracture. Which of the following is the best next step in management?