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Review Question - QID 217822

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QID 217822 (Type "217822" in App Search)
A 35-year-old jiu-jitsu instructor presents after sustaining a knee injury at the gym. His presenting radiographs are shown in Figure A, which do not demonstrate any acute fractures. He is found to have a posterior cruciate ligament tear and undergoes reconstruction. One year later he presents to the office with a new injury to the same knee sustained while performing burpees at CrossFit. He has a 1A Lachman test and his dial test results are as shown below:

At 30° of knee flexion:
Left knee: 28° external rotation
Right knee: 15° external rotation

At 90° of knee flexion:
Left knee: 26° external rotation
Right knee: 12° external rotation

Which of the following would be the most appropriate surgical management for this patient?
(ACL = anterior cruciate ligament, HTO = high tibial osteotomy, PCL = posterior cruciate ligament, PLC = posterolateral corner)
  • A
  • A