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Review Question - QID 216365

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QID 216365 (Type "216365" in App Search)
A 12-year-old wheelchair-bound male with Duchenne muscular dystrophy presents with a progressive spinal deformity. His current radiograph is demonstrated in Figure A. Currently, his curve measures 85° with a 20° L5 and pelvic tilt. His current FVC is 40%. Which treatment option is best?
  • A

T10-pelvis posterior instrumented fusion

11%

289/2750

T2-pelvis growing rod construct

22%

594/2750

T2-pelvis with posterior fusion and instrumentation

56%

1547/2750

T2-L5 posterior pedicle screw instrumented fusion

6%

174/2750

Initiate glucocorticoid treatment and postpone surgical correction for 1-2 years

3%

89/2750

  • A

Select Answer to see Preferred Response

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The patient is nonambulatory with a large neuromuscular scoliosis curve with a significant L5/pelvic tilt. T2-pelvis posteriorinstrumented fusion will facilitate both curve and pelvic obliquity correction.

Duchenne muscular dystrophy is a severe myopathy due to an absent dystrophin protein. There are several musculoskeletal manifestations including neuromuscular scoliosis and equinovarus foot deformities. Early posterior instrumented fusion is recommended in curves >20° due to rapid progression and respiratory decline. Fusion to the pelvis is recommended for curves >40°, pelvic tilt >10°, and lumbar curves with the apex lower than L1.

Takaso et al. performed a retrospective study of 28 Duchenne muscular dystrophy patients with neuromuscular scoliosis treated with posterior pedicle screw instrumentation and fusion ending at L5. They reported patients with an L5 tilt <15° maintained a pelvic tilt correction <10° and there was satisfactory sagittal plane correction. The authors concluded posterior pedicle screw instrumentation and fusion ending at L5 is appropriate in Duchenne neuromuscular scoliosis with an L5 tilt <15° and a curve apex above L2.

Arun et al. performed a non-randomized, retrospective study of 43 patients with Duchenne neuromuscular scoliosis treated with sublaminar instrumentation and spinal fusion from T2-sacrum, Hybrid T2-L5 fusion with Luque rods and sublaminar wires, or T2-L5 with pedicle screw fixation. They reported a significant increase in operative blood loss in cases with sublaminar wiring fused to the pelvis. All three type of fixation provided similar correction.

Figure A is an AP radiograph of the spine demonstrating a large left-sided lumbar neuromuscular curve with the apex at L2-3 disc space and significant pelvic tilt.

Incorrect answers
Answer 1: A T10-pelvis instrumented fusion would not be sufficient for a neuromuscular curve.
Answer 2: The use of growing rod constructs in a patient this age is not required as minimal trunk growth is remaining.
Answer 4: Ending the construct at L5 is an option in certain instances. However, a patient with a significant L5a and pelvic tilt would benefit more from pelvic fixation to level the pelvis for proper sitting position.
Answer 5: Postponing surgery would result in the progression of the patient's curve and further decline in respiratory function.

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