Review Question - QID 214236

A 72-year-old female presents to your office with a 12-month old painful nonunion of a 2-part (surgical neck) proximal humerus fracture which was managed non-operatively. Prior to her injury, she denied shoulder pain and had excellent range of motion. Since the injury, she has had persistent debilitating pain and dysfunction with motion above the shoulder level. X-Rays show good bone stock, no significant shoulder arthritis or avascular necrosis, and well-positioned tuberosities. Which of the following is the most optimal treatment for the patient?