Review Question - QID 213843

A 47-year-old man presents to your clinic with chronic persistent deep-seated right shoulder pain. He is able to perform most daily activities but experiences sharp shooting pain within the anterior aspect of the shoulder whenever he thows a baseball with his son. His primary care physician referred him to physical therapy first, which resulted in limited improvement in his symptoms, but he remains dissatisfied. Examination reveals symmetric rotator cuff strength and no instability. Speed's and O'brien's tests are positive. His MRI is shown in Figure A. Which of the following is correct with respect to the pathologic structure?