Review Question - QID 212166

A 56-year-old female presents to your clinic with right foot pain and complains that she has "lost her arch". This has been progressive for several years and her pain and dysfunction are starting to affect her job where she is on her feet all day. On examination, she has pain over the medial aspect of the mid and hindfoot. She is unable to perform a single leg heel raise. Her hindfoot is supple with eversion/inversion. Ankle dorsiflexion improves 10 degrees when the knee is brought from extension to flexion. There is no evidence of instability at the tarsometatarsal joint. Her AP radiograph is seen in Figure A. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical management to address her mid- and hindfoot deformities?