Review Question - QID 211979

A 19-year-old male collegiate football player presents to your office with left ankle pain after twisting his ankle during winter conditioning 2 weeks ago. Pain is located to the lateral ankle and has improved with rest and therapy. He is able to ride a stationary bike with minimal pain. He states this is the fifth time he has sprained his ankle, and third episode within the last year. He endorses frequent instability of the ankle, especially with cutting maneuvers. On exam, there is tenderness to palpation at the tip and posterior border of the fibula. There is increased translation with anterior drawer and pain is reproduced with passive dorsiflexion and eversion of the ankle. MRI of the ankle demonstrates chronic ATFL and CFL tears, as well as peroneal tendon tearing and degeneration. When addressing the peroneal tendons, which of the following is an indication for peroneal tendon debridement and tubularization only?