Review Question - QID 211744

A 43-year-old male laborer presents to your office for evaluation of right shoulder pain. He describes the location of the pain as “patch-like" over the lateral shoulder without pain anteriorly. He denies any previous surgeries on this shoulder, but has been treated with physical therapy, steroid injections, rest, and anti-inflammatories for the last year. On exam he has full passive range of motion with significant weakness with external rotation and an intact belly press test. MRI demonstrates a full thickness supraspinatus and infraspinatus tears with retraction medial to the glenoid. After thorough discussion the patient elects to proceed with tendon transfer, which of the following transfers would most benefit this patient?