Review Question - QID 211733

Figures A and B are the radiographs of a 62-year-old male who is presenting with worsening right shoulder pain for the past 4 months. He underwent arthroscopic rotator cuff repair of the right shoulder 14 years ago and was doing well until the past 4 months. His shoulder pain has been being managed by his primary care physician until this point. He has failed two courses of formal physical therapy and received cortisone injections without improvement. Figure C is an MRI obtained prior to consultation. On examination he has weakness with belly-press test and has passive external rotation to 90 degrees with the elbow at the side. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management for this patient?