Review Question - QID 211383

A 74-year-old female that underwent a right total hip arthroplasty 17 years ago presents with worsening right groin pain. The patient states her pain started 7 months ago and has progressively worsened. She denies any fevers or chills. Examination reveals a well-healed surgical incision without erythema or fluctuance. There is moderate discomfort with the manipulation of the right hip. Laboratory analysis is significant for ESR 12 mm/hr (reference <20 mm/hr), CRP 1.5 mg/L (reference <3.0 mg/L), and WBC 7,200 cells/µL (reference <11,000 cells/µL). A current radiograph is shown in Figure A. Compared to previous radiographs the femoral stem appears unchanged. What is the most appropriate treatment option?