Review Question - QID 210179

A 72-year-old male presents to your clinic with a 6-month history of left groin pain without preceding trauma. He previously underwent an uneventful left total hip arthroplasty 15-years prior at an outside institution. He has been ambulating with a cane for the last month due to pain. A left hip radiograph is obtained and presented in Figure A. Less than 4 centimeters of intact diaphyseal bone remains distal to the isthmus. An infection work-up is negative. Of the choices provided, what is the most appropriate management option at this time?