Review Question - QID 210131

A 29-year-old female presents to your clinic for surgical evaluation, referred by her family practitioner. She states she has a history of left arm numbness that comes and goes, and was told she had radiculopathy in the past. She recently completed a steroid taper pack, which provided moderate relief. On physical exam, she has decreased sensation in a non-dermatomal distribution involving most of her left arm. Left deltoid strength is 4/5. Left biceps and triceps reflexes are 3+. She has a positive Hoffmann’s sign bilaterally. A radiograph and magnetic resonance imaging of her cervical spine are shown in Figures A and B, respectively. What is the most appropriate next step in management?