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Review Question - QID 1361

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QID 1361 (Type "1361" in App Search)
A 42-year-old male sustains a left leg injury as the result of a high-speed motor vehicle collision. Physical exam reveals a grossly deformed left leg with a 1 centimeter open wound over the anterolateral aspect of his tibia; no gross neurovascular deficits are noted. Injury radiographs are shown in Figures A and B. He undergoes immediate tibial nailing with debridement and primary closure of his traumatic wound. Which of the following is the Gustilo-Anderson classification for his fracture?
  • A
  • B

I

12%

159/1319

II

16%

210/1319

IIIA

69%

911/1319

IIIB

2%

26/1319

IIIC

1%

9/1319

  • A
  • B

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Figures A and B show a significantly comminuted, segmental tibial fracture. In this scenario, the fracture is appropriately classified as a Grade III because there is a highly comminuted, segmental fracture which is always associated with significant periosteal stripping. The patient's leg was able to be closed primarily, which means that it should be classified as a IIIA.

Gustilo et al reviews 18 years of open fracture treatment and outcomes. They reported that débridement and copious irrigation, with primary closure for type I and II fractures and secondary closure for type III fractures resulted in a 5% infection rate (9% for type III fractures). Initial wound cultures were positive in 70.3% despite an infection rate of that patient group of only 2.5%.

Incorrect Answers:
Answer 1: Gustilo Type I wounds have a clean skin lesion that are < 1 cm, and a simple fracture with minimal comminution.
Answer 2: Gustilo Type II wounds have a skin lesion > 1 cm, no extensive soft tissue damage, minimal crushing, and moderate comminution and contamination.
Answer 4: Gustilo Type IIIB are defined as wounds that require a flap for salvage.
Answer 5: Gustilo Type IIIC have an exposed fracture with arterial damage that requires repair.

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