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Review Question - QID 1250

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QID 1250 (Type "1250" in App Search)
A 47-year-old male sustains the closed injury seen in Figures A and B after failing to land a motorcycle jump. A post-reduction radiograph is seen in Figure C. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment at this time?
  • A
  • B
  • C

Definitive closed treatment

4%

114/2573

Addition of percutaneous pins

7%

168/2573

Open reduction and internal fixation

86%

2218/2573

Tibiotalocalcaneal arthrodesis

1%

22/2573

Primary subtalar arthrodesis

2%

44/2573

  • A
  • B
  • C

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The clinical presentation and imaging studies are consistent with Hawkins II talar neck fracture, which by definition is a displaced talar neck fracture with subtalar dislocation/subluxation. Despite achieving an adequate reduction initially (shown in Figure C), there is no role for closed treatment of these unstable injuries, and the treatment of choice is open reduction and internal fixation.

The referenced article by Bibbo et al describes these injuries: 32% of subtalar joints are irreducible to closed means (half with soft tissue block, half with bony block to reduction), 88% have co-existing injuries of the ipsilateral foot, 89% have radiographic subtalar arthrosis at 5 years (62% symptomatic).

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