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A 59-year-old female librarian complains of progressively worsening left knee pain over the last 4 months. She does not recall any traumatic injury to the knee. Physical exam is noteable for tenderness isolated to the medial joint line. She has full ROM and no instability of the knee. Radiographs and MRI image are provided in figures A,B, and C. Which of the following is the best management?
Chest CT and bone scan
Osteochondral autograft transfer
Unicompartmental knee arthroplasty
Valgus-producing high tibial osteotomy
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A 74-year-old woman has had acute medial right knee pain for the past 3 months. She denies any history of trauma or previous problems. Coronal and sagittal MRI scans are shown in Figures 11a and 11b. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Medial meniscal tear