Please rate topic.
Average 3.1 of 27 Ratings
Thank you for rating! Please vote below and help us build the most advanced adaptive learning platform in medicine
You have 100% on this question. Just skip this one for now.
A 15-year-old boy reports a 2-day history of progressive left buttock pain and severe limping. He denies any history of trauma or radiation of the pain. He has an oral temperature of 100.4 degrees F (38 degrees C). Examination reveals that the lumbar spine and left hip have unguarded motion. The abdomen is nontender. There is moderate tenderness of the left sacroiliac region with no palpable swelling. Pain is elicited when the left lower extremity is placed in the figure-4 position (FABER test). Laboratory studies show a peripheral WBC count of 11,500/mmP3P (normal to 10,500/mmP3P) and an erythrocyte sedimentation rate of 38 mm/h (normal up to 20 mm/h). Radiographs of the pelvis, hips, and lumbar spine are normal. A nucleotide bone scan (posterior view) is shown in Figure 44. Initial management should consist of
oral nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs.
intravenous antistaphylococcal antibiotics.
incision and debridement of the retroperitoneal abscess.
incision and debridement of the left sacroiliac joint.
arthrotomy and irrigation of the left hip joint.
Select Answer to see Preferred Response