3.9 of 35 Ratings
Technique guides are not considered high yield topics for orthopaedic standardized exams including ABOS, EBOT and RC.
A 75-year-old female with rheumatoid arthritis presents to your clinic with complaints of long standing elbow pain. She has a 20º flexion contracture on examination and pain diffusely about the elbow. There is a soft tissue nodule noted to be overlying the elbow. Her radiograph is seen in Figure A. Which of the following is true regarding the development and management of the most likely pathologic process?
Disease process causes proteoglycan and collagen destruction
Osteophytes are most characteristic radiographic changes seen
Has poorer results when treated with total elbow arthroplasty compared with primary osteoarthritis
Should be managed with unconstrained total elbow arthroplasty
Rheumatoid factor mutation is responsible for abnormal elbow synovial proliferation
Select Answer to see Preferred Response
Figure A is the radiograph of a 68-year-old man presents to your office with complaints of elbow pain. He reports that 9 years prior he underwent an interposition arthroplasty for end stage osteoarthritis of the ulnohumeral joint. He now reports that for the two past years he has had increasing pain and elbow instability. There is no clinical evidence of infection, and radiographs show no new bony process. What is the best definitive treatment for this patient?
Conservative care to include physiotherapy
Revision interposition arthroplasty
Conversion to distal humerus hemiarthroplasty
Conversion to total elbow arthroplasty