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Technique guide are not considered high yield topics for orthopaedic standardized exams including the ABOS, EBOT and RC.
A 61-year-old laborer presents for total shoulder arthroplasty for primary osteoarthritis. What is his chance of having a concomitant full-thickness supraspinatus tear?
less than 10%
10 to 20%
20 to 30%
30 to 40%
greater than 40%
Select Answer to see Preferred Response
In comparison to patients with osteoarthritis, patient with inflammatory arthritis undergoing shoulder arthroplasty are more likely to have?
Large inferior humeral osteophyte
Medialization of the glenohumeral joint line
Posterior humeral head subluxation
Posterior glenoid wear
A 72-year-old man reports progressive pain and restriction of motion in his left shoulder. His active and passive motion are restricted to 90 degrees of forward elevation and neutral external rotation. Based on his radiograph shown in Figure A and physical exam, where is glenoid wear most likely to exist?
A 65-year-old man presents with chronic right shoulder pain and crepitus. On physical exam his rotator cuff strength is 5/5. He has pain with both passive and active range of motion. Radiographs are shown in Figures A and B. An MRI is performed and shows no evidence of a rotator cuff tear. When comparing TSA versus hemiarthroplasty as a treatment option in this patient, hemiarthroplasty results in which of the following?
Improved pain relief
Increased rate of revision surgery
Increased blood loss
Increased postoperative instability
Increased postoperative infection rates
HPI - 2 years post-traumatic proximal humeral malunion.
He cannot live with it anymore because of pain.
What is the best surgical option for this patient?
HPI - MBA 6 years ago
Patient isn't the best historian and, as his injury was sustained in another state, we have not been able to access his imaging or notes
Right proximal humerus ?fracture ?fracture-dislocation, treated non-operatively
Associated with brachial plexus injury of uncertain extent (patient describes complete paralysis of right upper extremity)
Plexus treated expectantly with recovery over 12-18 months
States reasonable shoulder function after plexus recovery for 1-2 years, but lasts 4 years has developed increasingly severe right shoulder pain with associated stiffness
Previously a fisherman, unable to work due to pain for 6 months
States had been placed on waiting list for "rotator cuff repair" in the other state 3 years ago, but never called for surgery
Having moved states, now presents to us "only" wanting more movement and less pain
What would be your preferred treatment option for this patient bearing in mind his age?
HPI - Right-hand dominant 38 year old male.
Past Surgical History: Right open bony-Bankart repair ~ 20 years ago. 2 screws in-situ.
Complaining of recurrent instability x 15 years.
Daily pain and crepitus with ROM.
Equally bothered by pain vs instability.
How would you manage this 38 year old patient?