4.1 of 18 Ratings
A 17-year-old male football player presents with a 3-week history of insidious right thigh pain and a limp. He denies any history of trauma. He is afebrile and WBC, ESR, and CRP are within normal limits. On examination he has pain with resisted adduction of his right hip only. The remainder of the examination is normal. Imaging obtained is shown in figures A, B, and C. What is the next best step in treatment?
Activity modification and NSAIDs
Irrigation and debridement
Select Answer to see Preferred Response
A professional rugby player has acute groin pain after an awkward collision with an opponent. MRI shows an avulsion injury of his adductor muscle. Which of the following is an appropriate treatment to provide?
Strict immobilization with the leg in flexion and adduction
Immediate rehabilitation consisting of increasing passive and active motion
Tendon repair with adjunctive allograft reconstruction