3.8 of 65 Ratings
Please rate this review topic.
You have never rated this topic.
Thank you. You can rate this topic again in 12 months.
Technique guides are not considered high yield topics for orthopaedic standardized exams including ABOS, EBOT and RC.
A 12-year-old basketball player reports frequent and moderately painful popping in his left knee during his games. His symptoms have remained persistent and both he and his parents are concerned as this limits his performance. He is evaluated and the decision is made to proceed with arthroscopic saucerization. Which of the following is true of his pathology?
Incomplete is more common than complete type
Instability of the meniscus is uncommon
Long-term degenerative changes are similar between arthroscopic saucerization, partial, and complete meniscectomy
Saucerization with repair results in inferior clinical outcomes compared to saucerization alone
A 6-8mm peripheral rim is recommended following saucerization
Select Answer to see Preferred Response
A 6-year-old boy complains of a 'clunking' sensation in his left knee. He has no associated pain and denies trauma. He can elicit the sensation when moving his knee from flexion into full extension. He is otherwise healthy, with no birth or developmental issues. On examination, there is a palpable clunk felt over the anterior knee through range of motion. There is no obvious instability or tenderness and he had normal patellar tracking. An AP radiograph of the knee is shown in Figure A. What would be the most likely diagnosis?
Agenesis of the anterior cruciate ligament
Thickened medial plica
Grade IV chondral flap
Pigmented villonodular synovitis
Abnormal meniscal morphology
Which statement is true regarding discoid menisci?
Most commonly involves the medial meniscus
Bilateral in >75% of cases
Asymptomatic discoid meniscus should undergo saucerization
Radiographs will commonly show a hyperplastic lateral intercondylar spine
Radiographs will commonly show squaring of affected condyle with cupping of tibial plateau
An 11-year-old soccer player presents with a 6 month history of snapping and discomfort along the lateral joint line of the knee. Examination shows a 10 degree loss of active extension. An AP radiographs is shown in Figure A. Sequential sagittal MRI images of the lateral compartment of the knee are shown in Figure B. What is the most appropriate course of action?
Physical therapy with a focus on concentric knee strengthening
Non-weightbearing for 6 weeks
Arthroscopic saucerization of the lateral meniscus and/or meniscal repair
Open lateral meniscectomy
Arthroscopic microfracture treatment of the defect on the lateral femoral condyle
An 8-year-old boy was playing at school and took a direct blow to his knee causing pain and swelling. His pediatrician ordered an MRI which is shown in Figure A. The patient was referred to your office for a consultation. He denies any past history of pain, clicking, or locking. His knee exam is unremarkable. Radiographs of the knee in your office are normal. What course of action will you recommend?
Surgical debridement and repair
Casting in 45 degrees of flexion
Knee immobilizer and non weight bearing for 6 weeks