A 42-year-old male with a history of gout and hypertension presents to his family physician with a complaint of increased left knee pain over the past 2 days. He also reports swelling and redness of the left knee and is unable to bear weight on that side. He denies any prior surgery or inciting trauma to the knee, reporting that the only strenuous activity he performed was mowing the lawn 5 days ago. His vital signs are as follows: T 38.5, HR 96, BP 110/78, RR 16, O2 99%. Physical examination reveals a left knee that is erythematous, swollen, warm-to-touch, and extremely tender to palpation and attempted flexion/extension movement. His left knee range of motion is markedly reduced compared to the contralateral side. Joint aspiration of the left knee is performed, with synovial fluid analysis showing turbid fluid with 95,000 WBC, 88% neutrophils, and low glucose. Gram stain of the synovial fluid was negative. Results from synovial fluid culture are pending. Which of the following is the best pharmacologic treatment regimen for this patient?