You've indicated a patient for total knee arthroplasty after...

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Figures A and B are the radiographs of a 76-year-old male wh...

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A 33-year-old male fell while backpacking in the mountains a...

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Of the magnetic resonance images provided in Figures A-E, wh...

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A 21-year-old collegiate linebacker with Type I diabetes man...

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A 48-year-old woman undergoes the procedure shown in Figure ...

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A 62-year-old male with a past medical history of diabetes mellitus and obesity presents to the level 1 trauma center after a motor vehicle collision with an acetabular fracture. A CT is performed which demonstrates a transverse posterior wall fracture without dislocation of the hip joint, but a large femoral head chondral lesion. The patient undergoes surgical intervention. Which of the following is true regarding this fracture type and associated pathology?

A 62-year-old male with a past medical history of diabetes mellitus and obesity presents to the level 1 trauma center after a motor vehicle collision with an acetabular fracture. A CT is performed which demonstrates a transverse posterior wall fracture without dislocation of the hip joint, but a large femoral head chondral lesion. The patient undergoes surgical intervention. Which of the following is true regarding this fracture type and associated pathology?

A 55-year-old male presents with severe right hip pain and limited range of motion. He was involved in a car accident approximately one year ago and underwent open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF) after an acetabular fracture. He had an uneventful recovery with return of pain-free ambulation, but recently developed progressive dysfunction due to pain. He undergoes total hip arthroplasty (THA) as recommended by his surgeon. Which of the following fracture patterns shown in Figures A-E placed him at the highest risk for post-traumatic arthritis requiring arthroplasty?

A 75-year-old female falls down the steps of her back porch ...

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A 32-year-old previously healthy male sustained a closed rig...

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A 57-year-old male laborer presents to your office with complaints of long-standing right elbow pain. He says he his elbow catches and clicks during a full range of motion and it is becoming increasingly painful and bothersome. A radiograph of his right elbow is seen in Figure A. After failing nonoperative management, you ultimately recommend arthroscopic debridement and removal of loose bodies. Which of the following should be done to prevent infection after elbow arthroscopy?

A 40-year-old male presents to your clinic for evaluation of...

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A 23-year-old female presents after falling down a flight of...

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A 28-year-old male presents to the emergency department via ...

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A 55-year-old male reports a 6-month history of neck and arm...

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A 6-year-old female presents to the ED with the radiographs ...

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A 71-year-old male falls down three stairs and strikes his h...

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A 20 year-old male presents with persistent sensation of his...

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A 57-year old male presents with right arm pain of 4 weeks duration. He reports the pain began following a tennis match and has not improved with time. He describes the pain as an aching sensation that affects his lateral forearm that improves when he abducts the shoulder. He also describe a sensation of numbness in this right thumb. Reflex exam shows he has 1+ right biceps reflexes and 2+ right triceps reflexes which are both symmetric with the left side. Sensory exam shows paresthesias in the distribution of the right thumb. Motor exam shows no evidence of radial deviation with active wrist extension. Motor exam on the right shows 5/5 deltoid, 5/5 elbow flexion with the palms facing upward, 4/5 wrist extension, and 5/5 elbow extension, and 5/5 wrist flexion. What is the most likely etiology of his symptoms.

An 18-year-old male presents with clicking, sensation of instability, and progressive pain in his right knee over the past 3 years without any inciting event. An MRI demonstrates continuity between the anterior and posterior horns of the lateral meniscus on 3 consecutive slices. Which of the following radiographs is most consistent with the diagnosis suggested by the patient’s MRI?

A high school quarterback presents to your office complainin...

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An unemployed 60-year-old female, who smokes cigars daily, h...

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A healthy 34-year-old male presents to the trauma bay follow...

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A 47-year-old man presents to your clinic with chronic persi...

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A 13-year-old male baseball pitcher presents to your office ...

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A 35-year-old female with a history of hip dysplasia undergoes right total hip arthroplasty. The patient’s preoperative AP right hip plain film is seen in Figure 1. The attending surgeon performs a posterior approach to the hip and implants the acetabular component at an anatomic level. A diaphyseal engaging press-fit stem is implanted in the femur and sunk distal to the calcar. Using soft tissue releases and the shortest head option possible, the hip is reduced. On postoperative day 1, the patient is unable to dorsiflex her right foot. What change in intraoperative technique could have been used to prevent this complication?