Figures 137a and 137b show MRI scans of a 56-year-old man who fell down the stairs and injured his elbow. He felt a pop and noted that his elbow had significant swelling. The primary care physician ordered radiographs that showed no fracture. Examination reveals moderate elbow swelling and ecchymosis. He has pain with passive range of motion, but can achieve full extension and flexion to 150 degrees. He is tender to palpation in the antecubital fossa and states that he would like to avoid surgery if possible. Which of the following statements best reflects the outcome of nonsurgical management?

A 10-day-old girl has decreased active motion of the left up...

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Figures 30a through 30c show the CT scans and standing later...

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A 34-year-old woman who underwent release of her first dorsa...

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A 42-year-old right-handed construction worker is seen in your office with progressive pain in his right shoulder. He reports no specific injury. He has more pain when he lifts above his shoulder level or lays on it at night. Physical examination demonstrates some prominence and tenderness of the AC joint, no impingement signs, no pain in the bicipital groove, full active range of motion, and 5/5 strength in internal rotation, external rotation and forward elevation, all maneuvers without any pain. A representative plain radiograph is shown in Figure 5. You elect to treat him with an injection of corticosteroids and local anesthetic directly into the AC joint. This completely relieves his pain and normalizes his physical exam. He returns to your office 4 weeks later saying that the injections relieved his pain for only one week and his pain is back. He would like definitive treatment. Your discussion of surgical options include:

In college level football players with symptoms of arm numbness and tingling following contact, which of the following is an indication for a cervical MRI prior to return to play?

A 42-year-old male presents to the ED following a posterolateral elbow dislocation after a snowboarding accident. His elbow is reduced in the ED and post-reduction imaging reveals no fracture. Two weeks later, he complains of difficulty pushing up out of a chair. On examination, with the patient laying supine and the affected arm placed overhead, he reports pain and clunking when the forearm is supinated and a valgus stress is applied while bringing the elbow from full extension to 40 degrees of flexion. Which of the following ligaments in Figure A is the primary stabilizer to varus and external rotation stress of the elbow that is deficient in this patient?

A 21-year-old patient is evaluated in the trauma bay after a motor vehicle accident. He was found to have a GCS of 3 on the scene and is presently intubated. His bulbocavernosus reflex is not intact. Radiographs and representative CT scan sequences are shown in Figures A through E. What is the next best step in management?

A 17-year-old male injures his right elbow during an athleti...

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You are giving a lecture on the management of upper extremit...

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