A 3-year-old child has refused to walk for the past 2 days. His parents report no known injuries. Examination in the emergency department reveals a temperature of 102.2 degrees F (39 degrees C) and limited range of motion of the left hip. An AP pelvic radiograph is normal. Laboratory studies show a WBC count of 9,000/mm3, an erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) of 50 mm/h, and a C-reactive protein level of 5 mg/dL (normal <1mg/dL). What is the next most appropriate step in management?

A non-ambulatory 7-year-old boy with spastic quadriplegic cerebral palsy, prematurity, and developmental delay presents with radiographic evidence of progressive hip subluxation. Most recent AP pelvis radiographs show Reimers migration percentage of 70% on the right and 60% on the left, as well as an acetabular index of 30º bilaterally. Passive abduction measures 30° on the right and 35° on the left. Operative intervention is recommended. In counseling the family, which treatment plan can you recommend that would most likely minimize resubluxation and need for reoperation over time?

A 62-year-old woman undergoes an uncomplicated primary metal-on-metal cementless hip arthroplasty. Her early postoperative course is unremarkable. She returns at 1 year reporting groin pain. Her symptoms are made worse with stair climbing and getting in and out of her vehicle. Examination reveals minimal discomfort with passive range of motion, but straight leg raising reproduces her symptoms. A radiograph is shown in Figure 28. What is the most appropriate surgical management?

A 68-year-old woman had advanced right knee arthritis and to...

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