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Review Question - QID 214132

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QID 214132 (Type "214132" in App Search)
A 55-year-old male presents for evaluation of chronic back pain. The pain has been present for 10 years and has not improved with physical therapy or NSAIDs. He has a 60-degree main thoracolumbar scoliosis curve. His spinal alignment radiographs reveal a lumbar lordosis of 45, a pelvic incidence of 70 degrees, a sacral slope of 50, and a pelvic tilt of 20. He is interested in surgical management. Which of the following equations, if met post-operatively, will likely lead to the best clinical outcome in this patient?
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