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A 42-year-old male is involved in an MVC and sustains an acetabular fracture. Surgical intervention through an extended iliofemoral approach is planned. Which of the following statements regarding this approach is true?
It is associated with the highest risk of heterotopic ossification (HO) compared to the other pelvic approaches
It is performed through the interval between the tensor fascia lata (TFL) and gluteus maximus
It is performed with the patient in a supine position
Permanent hip abductor weakness is a rare complication
It places the obturator nerve at risk
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A 32-year-old male sustains a complex both-column acetabular fracture and the operating surgeon decides to utilize an extended iliofemoral approach. The patient should be counseled that as compared with other surgical approaches to the acetabulum, the extended iliofemoral approach has the highest rate of which of the following?
Pudendal nerve palsy
Corona mortis injury
The approach shown in Figure A is most indicated for which of the following acute fracture patterns?
Comminuted posterior wall fracture
Posterior wall and posterior column fracture
Transtectal transverse fracture with impacted roof
Anterior column and posterior hemitransverse fracture
Simple posterior wall fracture