Review Question - QID 218949

A 36-year-old male presents to the trauma bay overnight after a multi-car pile-up with a closed tibial shaft fracture. He is placed in splint immobilization and brought to the operative room two days later due to triage prioritization. He is given tranexamic acid and 2g cefazolin prior to incision followed by reamed intramedullary nail fixation. While planning discharge the following day, the nurse calls and states the patient needed increasing oxygen support overnight into this morning to maintain oxygen saturation above 92%. She also says he has become increasingly delirious this morning and noticed a rash across his chest and abdomen. Which of the following is the cause for his current presentation?