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Review Question - QID 214079

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QID 214079 (Type "214079" in App Search)
A 25-year-old professional football player presents to your clinic with 5 months of persistent deep shoulder pain. Examination reveals a positive apprehension and relocation sign. His imaging studies demonstrated an isolated anterior labral tear. The decision is made to proceed with a labral repair and perform an inferior capsular shift. Which of the following maneuvers can help minimize the risk to the most commonly injured nerve during the patient's stabilization procedure?