Please rate topic.
Average 4.7 of 7 Ratings
You have 100% on this question. Just skip this one for now.
A 13-year-old boy presents to the emergency department in Rhode Island with knee pain for three days duration. It was atraumatic in onset. He has been afebrile. Upon physical examination, he is noted to have a tense, swollen knee and the skin lesion seen in Figure A. An oral course of antibiotics is selected as definitive management. What antibiotic would be most appropriate for this patient, and what is its primary mechanism of action?
Doxycycline, Inhibits the 50s ribosomal subunit
Doxycycline, Inhibits the 30s ribosomal subunit
Cephalexin, Blocks cell wall synthesis
Cephalexin, Folic acid inhibitor
Rifampin, RNA synthesis inhibitor
Select Answer to see Preferred Response