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Technique guides are not considered high yield topics for orthopaedic standardized exams including ABOS, EBOT and RC.
Figure 26 shows the radiograph of an otherwise healthy Caucasian 5-year-old boy who has a painless limp. What is the best treatment option?
Varus derotation osteotomy
Physical therapy and range-of-motion exercises
Select Answer to see Preferred Response
A 9-year-old male is brought in for initial evaluation of persistent painless limping favoring the left leg. His symptoms began 6 months ago, and have been progressively worsening. He has nearly full abduction. Radiographs and an MRI are shown in Figures A, B, and C. What is the next most appropriate step in treatment?
Left hip aspiration and culture under fluoroscopic guidance
Continued activity limitation and bracing
Femoral or pelvic osteotomy
Core decompression of the femoral head
Work-up for underlying metabolic bone disease
A six-year-old boy presents with left leg pain and limping. Radiographs are shown in Figures A and B. The radiographic changes necessary for accurate lateral pillar classification of his disease are usually evident how long after the onset of symptoms?
For children with Legg-Calve-Perthes(LCP) disease, all of the following factors are associated with femoral head incongruity and worse clinical outcome EXCEPT:
Maintenance of less than 50% of lateral pillar height
Presentation at 5 years of age
Lateral subluxation of the femoral head
Calcification lateral to the epiphysis
Presence of a radiolucency in the shape of a V in the lateral portion of the epiphysis (Gage sign)