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A 17-month-old boy is referred to your office for abnormal gait. He began walking at 15 months of age. His mother reports that he has always had bowed legs, but the deformity has steadily worsened. A video of the child's gait is shown in Video V. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
Standing, full-length bilateral lower extremity radiographs
Bilateral knee MRIs
Bilateral proximal tibial osteotomies
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A 32-month-old male with severe infantile Blounts disease has been treated with full time bracing for the past year. At most recent follow-up, the varus deformity of his bilateral legs has worsened despite compliance with bracing. What treatment is now recommended?
Observation, discontinuation of bracing
Observation, continuation of full-time bracing
Bilateral distal femur osteotomies
Bilateral proximal tibial medial hemiepiphysiodesis
Lateral tibial physeal stapling is a treatment option for adolescent Blount’s disease. How is the staple an example of the Hueter-Volkmann principle?
Increased compression along the growth plate slows longitudinal growth
Decreased compression along the growth plate slows longitudinal growth
Increased tension along the growth plate slows longitudinal growth
Decreased tension along the growth plate slows longitudinal growth
Increased compression along the plate increases longitudinal growth
Figure 29 shows the AP radiograph of a 14-year-old boy. The radiographic findings are most consistent with what pathologic process?
Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis (JRA)
Adolescent Blount’s disease
Infantile Blount’s disease
Examination of an obese 3-year-old girl reveals 30 degrees of unilateral genu varum. A radiograph of the involved leg with the patella forward is shown in Figure 10. Management should consist of
continued observation until skeletal maturity.
fitting for a valgus-producing hinged knee-ankle-foot orthosis.
lateral proximal tibial hemiepiphysiodesis.
proximal tibiofibular osteotomy and acute correction.
proximal tibiofibular epiphysiodesis and osteotomy with lengthening.
A healthy 5-year-old boy is referred to your office for leg bowing. Radiographs of his legs are shown in Figure A. Which of the following is the next best step in management?
Observation and 6 month follow-up
Nighttime bracing with knee-ankle-foot orthoses
Bilateral proximal tibial lateral epiphysiodesis using extraperiosteal plates
A 30-month-old boy has worsening bilateral bowleg deformities, and radiographs depicting Langenskiold stage II are shown in Figure A. The most appropriate initial management should consist of which of the following?
Bracing with knee-ankle-foot orthoses
Bracing with ankle-foot orthoses
Proximal tibia/fibula valgus osteotomy with bar resection
Proximal tibia/fibula valgus osteotomy with hemiepiphysiodesis
A valgus producing proximal tibial osteotomy with 10 degrees of overcorrection is the most appropriate treatment for which of the following patients with tibia vara?
A 4-year-old obese child with Blount's disease, Langenskiöld stage IV
An 18-month-old child with a proximal tibia metaphyseal-diaphyseal angle of 11 degrees
A 2-year-old obese child with Blount's disease, Langenskiöld stage II disease
A 5-year-old child with untreated renal osteodystrophy and a proximal tibia metaphyseal-diaphyseal angle of 16 degrees
A 8-year-old child with distal femoral varus and a lateral distal femoral angle of 95 degrees